Author: * Demetrios Eurimedon -
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Date: Oct 7, 2006 - 15:51
Dear Dravidia and Rhadamantys,
lingual identity and cultural difference might be a base for curious ideas - for example, that there were some lingual "layers", in order of appearance: mediterranean (we don't know, but maybe there was a lingual family including Minoans, pre-indoeuropean population of Europe, pre-semitic population of Palestine etc.), semitic (Israel, Canaaneans, Arabs, Amorites, Akkadian etc.) and indoeuropean (Hittites, ruler caste of Mittanni, Armenians, Greeks, Iranians etc.). Then, we know something about ancient cultural centres: Mesopotamia, Egypt, Minoan Crete, maybe Ebla, maybe Pelasgian and Mykenian Greece). So we have an "Egypt-oriented" small pre-semitic kingdoms of Palestine, then spreading of Semits which could be bearers of numerous elements of Mesopotamian and Syrian (Ebla?) cultures, Hittites, rulers of Mittanni (maybe Iranian or even Indian people), Sea Peoples (cultural followers of Mykenian Greece and Crete).
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And, Dravidia - indeed, like in your case with Moscow and Siberia, we see significant difference between Assyrians (Mesopotamia), Israel (Egypt) and Phoenecians (Sea Peoples). All of abovementioned peoples were "semitic-spoken". Kind of mystery hides in ancient Caucasus and pre-hittite Anatolia. Probably there had been some minor states when Indoeuropeans came. Were ancient Hattians and Hurrians parts of pre-semitic "layer" between Black Sea and Mesopotamia? Were there links between Hattians or Hurrian and, say, Etruscans or Minoans? Were mediterranean peoples parts of some huge family, or a group of families? Who knows?
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