Another point of note is one that Neville points out that 'that wræccan in wræccan lastum (15b) is related to the verb wrecan, "to avenge" or "to punish," and thus he claims that the common translation as "exile" is imperfect.' in . "Image and Symbol in The Seafarer." Theoria 14 (1960): 29-35. Thus if the anghara has been punished, and his comrades lie dead, what is the reason for his punishment (eons ago)?

Also the lamenting of the character is very traditional, consider the implications of Maxim 1;
‘Earm biþ se þe sceal ana lifgan,
wineleas wunian hafaþ him wyrd geteod;’
(The man who has to live by himself is miserable, fate has dictated that he should; live without friends.)
or Hávamál 29
hraðmælt tunga,
nema haldendur eigi,
oft sér ógott um gelur.
(‘the hasty tongue sings its own mishap if it be not bridled in.)
or the Wanderer lines 37-8;
Forþon wat se þe sceal his winedryhtnes leofes larcwidum longe forþolian:
And so he knows it, he who must forgo for a long time
the counsels of his beloved lord:

Again this to me seems similar to Christ and Satan and Genesis B
Line 53
secga geseldan; swimmað oft on weg
the companions of men; they always swim away.
Begs the qyustion; why do the companions of men swim away? what do they fear?

Also, again, the use of 'Geara iu' certainly suggests Satan (or some other ancient character) as a long period of time judged by a mortal would surely be 'forlongen' or 'ealdes'.

What do you all think? Can anyone help me expand this idea? Is there any possible influence from latin (which I know very little about right now) which could account for this view? Lets hear some opinions.

Wadnc wræcclastas!