Perhaps what Drakus is referring to is in the forward the second edition of LOTR:

"As for any inner meaning or 'message', it has in the intention of the author none. It is neither allegorical or topical. As the story grew it put down roots (into the past) and threw out unexpected branches: but its main theme was settled from the outset by the inevitable choice of the Ring as the link between it and The Hobbit" (p. xvi).

Tolkien, himself, says that The Lord of the Rings began as an attempt to construct a "really long story that would hold the attention of readers . . ." (ibid).

Now, having said that, it is entirely possible that his faith background played a part in the construction the story. If he was putting down roots "into the past," his Christian past, no less than his Anglo-Saxon past would have influenced how the story developed.

I've just started reading Beowulf for the first time in eleven years and am amazed to see how many Old English words have found their way into Tolkien's world (my edition has Old English on one side and the translation on the other.) (For example 'theoden' and 'eorl' and their variants seem to be, I believe, Old English words for prince, king, ruler, etc. Hmmmmm . . . . If my Old English is wrong, I'm sorry ;-)

I don't think anyone has a problem with Tolkien using elements from his Anglo-Saxon past to construct a riveting story, why should we be offended to see how he uses his faith, too? Perhaps I'm biased, since I share that faith!

I know I'm new to the group, so please forgive me for jumping in with such a strong opinion. Peace.